How do you know when to use the definite article in regards to a proper noun, specifically a place name? This sentence, Number 6 on Lesson 84 in JWW reads:
[size=150]ὁδος φανερα ἀγει εἰς τας του Κυρου κωμας.
It says here (Humbert, Syntaxe grecque) that :
a) in Homer and in “high” lyric poetry the article with a proper noun is not found;
b) later, the article is not found when the tone of the text is formal or cold (hostile: in a political discourse, the opponent’s name is never preceded by an article).
c) Elsewhere, article with a proper noun is common practice, although not compulsory. It fits in particularly when the person has already been mentioned and acts as a character of the related story.
Well, you may do what you want… :
at the risk of being wrong and humbling myself yet more..
I agree with Skylax that this is a situation where the article in Greek is used with proper nouns and it is not to be translated.
“the villages of Cyrus” where the meaning ‘of’ comes from the use of the genitive of possesion.
~gnosomai
Ok, thanks. JWW seems to like to throw these quirks in and then leave you in the dark as to what they mean. I am sure I would have been confused by the intertwining articles if I didn’t have a reasonable knowledge of Latin…
Look at the rules of Syntax paragraph 807 - you will be surprised what’s there. I read the rules of syntax often and I find that it helps.
It does seem that White leaves things up to the reader but I bet that he was actually leaving unexplained issues up the instructor. The book is very small so who knows what is left out or under developed? I think these old grammars were written with the expectation that they would be used in a classroom. Modern grammars seem to cater a bit more to the independent student. I still like the older ones better because they seem to have a faster pace and impose discipline, but that could just be in my head.
~gnosomai