ἔφασαν οἱ Χαλδαῖοι: πολλὰ γὰρ ἂν ὠφελεῖσθαι οὐδὲν πονοῦντες.
Some editions have πονοῦντας here, as in the London edition of 1856 based on Lindorf. Are both correct, and if yes, how to explain the Acc.?
The nom. is clearly right.
Marchant’s fix. Dindorf’s note discussing this.
And Bornemann.
But Marchant had already fixed this in Hellenica a few years before, so he was sort of stuck doing the same here. Editorial leveling of the texts, imo.