γένοιτο ϙθ´
Isocrates: ἥτις οὐδ’ ἐπειδὴ τελευτᾶν ἤμελλε τὸν βίον, ὁρῶσα τοὺς πολίτας τοὺς ἡμετέρους, ὅσοι περ ἦσαν ἐν Τροιζῆνι, διαπλέοντας εἰς Αἴγιναν ἵν’ αὐτὸν συγκαταθάψειαν, οὐδ’ εἰς τοῦτον τὸν καιρὸν ἀπήντησεν…
“At that time” again.
Joel, You seem to be suggesting that εἰς τοῦτον τὸν καιρὸν in that Isocrates passage has the same meaning as ἐς τοῦτον τὸν χρόνον in the Xenophon passage. But καιρος is not χρονος, and the context is different. I see no point in arguing.
I think εἰς τοῦτον τὸν καιρόν here might be better explained this way:
. . . she didn’t go see him even for that moment/event/occasion [i.e., his death] . . .
She would have had to set out on a short trip from Troezen to Aegina in order to be at the dying man’s bedside at the moment of his death.
ἀπαντάω generally implies motion – go to meet.
Cross-posted with mwh
Oh, so it’s not a type of εἰς τότε statement? This is getting interesting. I’m all ears. Do the Herodotus while you’re at it.
Herodotus 1.77.3: “he told the Spartans to be there on a specified date”. Not sure what your point is. ἐς χρόνον ρητόν modifies παρεῖναι, not ἐπαγγείλας, and looks to the future, just as ἐς τοῦτον τὸν χρόνον in X. and εἰς τοῦτον τὸν καιρόν in Isocrates do.