Classical Greek vs. Colwell's Rule vs. Subset Proposition

Greek Learning Greek
1

I am cross-posting this from:

http://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/18731/classical-greek-vs-colwells-rule-vs-subset-proposition

Question: > In Classical Greek, how is the “Untagged/Anarthrous Nominative w/tagged Predicate Nominative” construct resolved?

Notably, in the New Testament, (John 1:1), there is disagreement between the application of “Colwell’s Rule”, and “Subset/Convertible Propositions”.

John 1:1, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος

Is this dilemma exclusive to the New Testament? If not, how is this resolved in Classical Greek texts? What is the “Classical” approach to this dilemma?

Notes:

  1. I am trying to avoid theologizing this, and looking to understand this from the point of Classical Greek.


  2. It seems as though application of Colwell’s Rule results similarly as the Convertible Proposition, (but the Convertible Proposition rule would not apply). 2. Hopefully, by addressing this from a “neutral/classical” point-of-view, it will be possible to escape the presuppositions carried in from different Christian traditions …