Beginner question

Hi all, I am working my way through a textbook and I have the teacher’s version so I can correct my work. I noticed a brief note saying that in a passage I translated, some students will translated ἐστιν in the present tense. I was one of those students. Quote here:


“Students will have no trouble comprehending the sentence in which this clause occurs, but they may translate ἐστιν with present tense. They will see a number of examples of indirect statement of this sort and will come to translate the present more naturally as a past tense in English.”

The translated sentence was: “she learned the boy was blind.” I had “is blind”

I was wondering if anyone could expand on this a bit more. I tried Googling but had no luck. Is what this getting at that because it’s a defective verb we can have the liberty of rendering it into “was” rather than “is”? Little confused.

Thanks.

Indirect discourse works differently in English and Greek. In English, when you transform direct discourse into indirect, you change the tense:

He said “The door is open”. ----> He said that the door was open.

In Greek you retain the same tense, although you may change mood and use the optative.

Thank you, this makes the textbook’s mention of this a bit clearer