Goodwin (§1024) states that Attic οἷός τε is probably τoιούτος οἷός τε by ellipsis. Is that a plausible explanation, and how does such an explanation actually explain it?
Do the other dialects use a spelt out τoιούτος οἷός τε with a similar meaning?
I have been meaning to bring this up. In addition what purpose does the ‘τε’ at the end server? The first part seems to be a way of saying “the sort to + infinitive” which in turn seems to be saying “the sort that is able to do something/is able”.
Epic generalizing τε, which doesn’t really exist in Attic, except as preserved in idiom (like this). This is according to the LSJ entry on τε. Also going by the LSJ, the τoιούτος οἷός τε by be less an explanation than an observation (ie., they note it occurring in the fuller form). I wasn’t very impressed by the citations on that though.
I noticed an illuminative usage of οἷός τε in Book I of the Republic last week, and almost posted it, but I can’t remember where. I’ll add a note about it on my re-read.