Hi, guys!
I have a question on the very first sentence of the Meno, which bothers me so long time. But I couldn’t find any answer on Google. Can somebody free me from this suffering question?
Why διδακτὸν in “διδακτὸν ἡ ἀρετή” is in neuter form, though ἡ ἀρετή is obviously fem. and nom..
I hope you all good! Thx!
Διδακτος can be an adj. with 3 Endings: -ος, -η, ον (some dictionaries I consulted have only this), and (some dictionaries Montanari, Jacobitz, Bailly:) with 2 Endings : -ος, -ος, -ον
Here we have an example of the use as an adj. With 2 endings.
Regards,
Jean
No, it’s neuter here, as is usual for this meaning, which others can explain. If it were a 2-ending adjective in agreement, you’d have διδακτος η αρετη.
Just as I was sending the part of διδακτος I realised, η αρετη is in the nominative, so the two cases would not fit.
Joel Eidsath was quicker than me!
Could this be the explanation for this construction:
Smyth, Greek Grammar, par. 974: a predicative substantive my agree in genderand number with ist subject; but this is often impossible.
He gives examples with gender and number difference: τυχη τα θνητων πραγματα: the affairs of mortals are chance.
Kühner-Gerth, vol. I p. 62 have a remark (I hope I did understand this well): when the subst. is the name of some thing (here: the virtue), the adj. does not have to be in the same gender, so in this case it might be the neuter nominative: is virtue a thing that can be learnt?
Jean
I’m afraid neither of those apply here. But see Smyth 1048. Examples there to whet your appetite:
καλὸν εἰρήνη
ἄπιστον ταῖς πολιτείαις ἡ τυραννίς
μεῖζον πόλις ἑνὸς ἀνδρός
Thank both of you for trying to enlighten me.
By now I should accept the explanation of Smyth 1048, as Jeidsath suggested. It actually fits also with the meaning of the sentence. Thx!!