3rd plural imperative morphology

Greek Learning Greek
1

Hi All,

I am starting a review of grammar of the verb before studying periphrastics. I started out on Biblical Greek so I’m using this opportunity to read classical stuff. So I’m using CGCG. Almost straight out the gate in morphology I ran across this. In Koine the 3rd plural imperative forms are in τωσαν/σθωσαν, as described in Mounce, Stevens, Robertson and so on. In CGCG this form is reported as οντων/εσθων in the present and σαντων/σασθων/θεντων in the aorist. I cross-checked with Smyth and Coderch and they report the same.

Can anyone shed any light on this difference ?

Thx
D

2

See Smyth 466 3 for a bit more of the timeline of the change, at least, though it doesn’t discuss any theories for why. Simplicity?

3

Thanx Joel. That places it in the Koine period, as far as the inscriptions go anyway. Though Euripides is a bit earlier. I did find briefest of footnotes in CGCG merely saying “Later τωσαν and σθωσαν”.

Thx
D