τί δέ; καὶ ταύτῃ δεῖ ὑπ᾽ ἐμοῦ τε καὶ σοῦ τὸν λόγον ἐπαινεθῆναι, ὡς τὰ δέοντα εἰρηκότος τοῦ ποιητοῦ
εἰρηκότος τοῦ ποιητοῦ is this an absolute gen., or a posessive gen.?
How would it make sense as a possessive genitive? I think ὡς tips us off that’s it’s a GA:
- with Parts. put abs. in gen., νῦν δέ, ὡς οὕτω ἐχόντων, στρατιὴν ἐκπέμπετε Hdt.8.144; ἐρώτα ὅτι βούλει, ὡς τἀληθῆ ἐροῦντος X.Cyr.3.1.9; ὡς ὧδʼ ἐχόντων τῶνδʼ ἐπίστασθαί σε χρή S.Aj.281, cf. 904, A.Pr.760, E.Med.1311, Th.7.15, X.An.1.3.6: so also in acc., μισθὸν αἰτοῦσιν, ὡς οὐχὶ αὐτοῖσιν ὠφελίαν ἐσομένην ἐκ τοῦ ἄρχειν Pl.R.345e, cf. E.Ph.1461: with both cases in one sentence, ὡς καὶ τῶν Ἀθηναίων προσδοκίμων ὄντων ἄλλῃ στρατιᾷ, καὶ .. διαπεπολεμησόμενον Th.7.25, cf. Pl.R.604b.
Liddell, H. G., Scott, R., Jones, H. S., & McKenzie, R. (1996). A Greek-English lexicon (p. 2039). Oxford: Clarendon Press.
The ως isn’t at all determinative on its own. But εἰρηκότος obviously takes τὰ δέοντα as an object. Otherwise the meaning would be that “we need to praise the speech as the need of a speaking poet”.
True, but it’s a contextual clue that suggests the usage is a GA. I agree that the text would makes sense as a GA without it.