50c ff

[Constantinus Philo]

διὰ δὴ τί μάλισθ᾽ ὑπολαμβάνεις με δεῖξαί σοι τὴν ἐν τῇ κωμῳδίᾳ μεῖξιν; ἆρ᾽ οὐ πίστεως χάριν, ὅτι τήν γε ἐν τοῖς φόβοις καὶ ἔρωσι καὶ τοῖς ἄλλοις ῥᾴδιον κρᾶσιν ἐπιδεῖξαι: λαβόντα δὲ τοῦτο παρὰ σαυτῷ ἀφεῖναί με μηκέτι ἐπ᾽ ἐκεῖνα ἰόντα δεῖν μηκύνειν τοὺς λόγους, ἀλλ᾽ ἁπλῶς λαβεῖν τοῦτο, ὅτι καὶ σῶμα ἄνευ ψυχῆς καὶ ψυχὴ ἄνευ σώματος καὶ κοινῇ μετ᾽ ἀλλήλων ἐν τοῖς παθήμασι μεστά ἐστι συγκεκραμένης ἡδονῆς λύπαις....
Stallbaum's interpretation is that the inf cum Acc ( ἀφεῖναί με, λαβεῖν) depend upon πίστεως, whereas Badham suggests that they all depend upon ὑπολαμβάνεις δεῖν. Which suggestion is more plausible? I think Stallbaum's since he is German.