"Respondit Isaac: Dominum tuum illum constitui, et omnes fratres ejus servituti illius subjugavi; frumento et vino stabilivi eum" -Gen 27.37 C. Vulgate
"Isaac answered: I have appointed him thy lord, and have made all his brethren his servants: I have established him with corn and wine" -ibid. Douay
Isaac is here speaking with Esau about his other son Jacob. I seem to understand all of the grammar except as to why the illum (ille nominative) would switch to ejus (is), then illius (ille), and then eum (is). I would expect that all four pronouns which referred to Jacob would use the same prounoun: is. I read section 297 in A&G, but to no avail. Thank you.
Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Ille underwent a weakening in later Latin from meaning 'that (X)' to something closer to is (bare pronoun – he, she, it) in the classical language. What you're seeing is evidence of that. Ille would eventually weaken further to provide most forms of the definite article in the Romance languages.
Social Variation and the Latin Language by J.N. Adams gives a useful overview of this process.
Social Variation and the Latin Language by J.N. Adams gives a useful overview of this process.
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Thank you, I understand that ille and is are often interchangeable. What I would like to know is more along the lines of why the author would have alternated the pronouns instead of using one or the other exclusively. Perhaps this form of alternation is seen elsewhere?
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
It’s not a matter of alternation, it's a matter of salience. “I’ve made him your master, and I’ve subjugated all his brothers to his subservience.”
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Thank you mwh,
If I understand correctly, ille (as opposed to tuus) is being emphasized over is (which is more generic).
Also, should questions like these be made in the Late Latin category?
If I understand correctly, ille (as opposed to tuus) is being emphasized over is (which is more generic).
Also, should questions like these be made in the Late Latin category?
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Yes, the point is simply that illum and eum are not equipollent. Illum is deictic, eum is not. I expect that’s true of the Vulgate’s Latin in general, as it is of earlier Latin.
It’s not for me to say (I have no special status here), but I’d have thought this was the most appropriate board for questions like this. It’s of wide relevance, and the Latin is pre-medieval.
It’s not for me to say (I have no special status here), but I’d have thought this was the most appropriate board for questions like this. It’s of wide relevance, and the Latin is pre-medieval.
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Thank you, although I'm not certain I fully understand the term deictic, perhaps an example or two?
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Anything to oblige. Here's an example from a recent thread on this board:
"hic portum alii faciunt, hic magni theatri fundamenta locant alii ingentesque columnas e rupibus efficiunt."
hic is deictic.
And in my second sentence in the present post, "Here" and "this" are both deictic.
"hic portum alii faciunt, hic magni theatri fundamenta locant alii ingentesque columnas e rupibus efficiunt."
hic is deictic.
And in my second sentence in the present post, "Here" and "this" are both deictic.
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Re: Gen. 27:37 C. Vulgate
Understood, thank you.