5.,4, 2

[Constantinus Philo]

: ἥξειν δὲ καὶ αὐτὸς ἔφασκεν, εἰ μὲν δύναιτο, ἀποκτείνας Γαδάταν, εἰ δὲ μή, ὡς σὺν τῷ Ἀσσυρίῳ τὸ λοιπὸν ἐσόμενος.
Is ὡς redundant here?

[phalakros]

It’s the common construction of fut ptcp expressing purpose, often with ὡς. The ὡς nuances the participle, showing that it has application primarily to the speaker’s intention. The narrator does not necessarily vouch for it. Syntactically speaking, this ὡς is optional. It is also grammatically correct without it.

Note also τὸ λοιπόν ("in the future," "from now on") here, another temporal expression idiomatically with the neuter article like τὸ ἀπὸ τοῦδε and the others we talked about in the earlier thread.