verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

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joseph47parker
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verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

Post by joseph47parker » Tue Feb 05, 2008 8:50 pm

So, on another forum, a guy asked me about various translations of a few verses. It seemed that some of the confusion might be eliminated with an adequate understanding of the verb tenses. Since I’m not yet to verbs, I thought I would post his concerns here and see if you guys had an opinion on it. First, the translation of 1 John 3:9.

This has been translated several different ways. The way the KJV reads, it would seem to imply that a Christian “cannot sin?, the NIV states that they cannot “continue to sin?, the ESV states they cannot “make a practice of sinning?.

Could somebody translate this verse and explain the verb tenses used and make a statement to the proper translation.

Secondly, could some of you address John 9:31
Here the verse states that God does not listen to sinners, which is held in tension with 1 John 1:10. Could someone please address these translations as well. Thanks.

Bert
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Re: verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

Post by Bert » Wed Feb 06, 2008 12:13 am



Kasper
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Re: verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

Post by Kasper » Wed Feb 06, 2008 1:01 am

Joseph on what basis do you say that "ο γεγεννημε?νος εκ του θεου" translates to 'a Christian'? This may be what is meant, but it is certainly not a literal translation.
“Cum ego verbo utar,” Humpty Dumpty dixit voce contempta, “indicat illud quod optem – nec plus nec minus.”
“Est tamen rogatio” dixit Alice, “an efficere verba tot res indicare possis.”
“Rogatio est, “Humpty Dumpty responsit, “quae fiat magister – id cunctum est.”

vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum » Wed Feb 06, 2008 1:27 am

the NASB is generally considered the most accurate translation of the Bible into English, so from now on you ought to consult it in addition to the KJV when considering such issues.

Bert
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Re: verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

Post by Bert » Wed Feb 06, 2008 2:34 am



Bert
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Post by Bert » Wed Feb 06, 2008 2:36 am

vir litterarum wrote:the NASB is generally considered the most accurate translation of the Bible into English, so from now on you ought to consult it in addition to the KJV when considering such issues.
The most accurate? That is definitely not a generally held view. The most ridgidly copying the Greek sentence structure, that is a generally helf view.

joja
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Re: verb tense issues in 1 John 3:9

Post by joja » Mon Mar 29, 2010 7:28 pm

Re; JOHN 9:31

The blind man that was healed is telling them that God
honors the prayers of true worshippers.

A sinner before asking God for anything should first
confess his sins to God and recognize Who He is.
God is in His Word and His will is to obey His Word.

---------------------------
JHN 9:30 The man answered and said unto them,
Why herein is a marvellous thing, that ye know not
from whence he is, and [yet] he hath opened mine eyes.


Jhn 9:31 Now we know that God heareth not sinners:
but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will,
him he heareth.


Jhn 9:32 Since the world began was it not heard that
any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind.


Jhn 9:33 If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.

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