The answer book wrote:

I wrote, "οἱ γέροντες ἔφασαν δεῖ τὰς γυναῖκας τοῖς νομοῖς πείθεσθαι, αἱ δὲ γραῦες ἔφασαν τοὺς ἄνδρες αἰτίους δεινῶν κακῶν τῆ πολεῖ γενέσθαι."
Three questions:
1. Why did the answer book place δεῖ in the infinitive? I thought that I was supposed to use an impersonal verb with the infinitive of the finite verb?
2. Do I need to place μέν in the first phrase?
3. I thought the word order generally placed the infinitive and then the finite verb toward the end, but the author has ἔφασαν at the end of the first phrase. I also do not know if the adjective at the end or the impersonal verb placement is just free Greek word order or if there are other reasons for it? I am OK if the word order is too beyond me for an answer.
Note: I placed my Greek in a larger font, because the normal font is kind of a strain to read.