Lukas, as others have observed, many of the difficulties you have would be solved if you memorized your paradigms and reviewed them regularly. Build in a cycle of review: every time you start a new section, go back and review an old one. Start at the beginning and spend 5 minutes with the paradigms and vocabulary in that chapter. Then the next time you start a new section, in your review move to chapter 2. Rinse and repeat until you catch up to where you are, and then start the review all over again. If you do this or something like it consistently it will help you greatly.
Lukas wrote: ↑Thu Oct 17, 2019 6:17 am
I am having trouble translating some of a passage into Greek. The passage is,
"For that day the cavalry guarded the camp, but on the next day they rode against the enemy, for they believed they would easily defeat them.
I wrote, "Εκεὶνην τὴν ἠμέραν οἱ ῾ιππῆς τὸ στρατόπεδον ἐφυλάζατο, ἀλλ᾿ τῆ ὔτερᾳ ἠμέρᾳ πρὸς τοὺς πολεμίους ἤλάσαν. ἡγησάντο γὰρ ῥᾳδίως αὐτοὺς κρατεῖν."
The answer book wrote, Εκεὶνην μὲν τὴν ἠμέραν οἱ ῾ιππῆς τὸ στρατόπεδον ἐφθύλλατον, τῆ δὲ ὔτερᾳ ἠμέρᾳ πρὸς τοὺς πολεμίους ἤλάσαν. ἡγοῦντο γὰρ ῥᾳδίως αὐτοὺς κρατήσειν.
I had trouble translating "would." I was not sure whether to place it in the future, aorist, or imperfect.
In the English, what is the sequence of tenses? "They believed is past tense. From the perspective of that past tense, when does the defeating take place? Before, at the same time as, or after the believing? After right? Then it's future to the past action. What form then would you want in Greek?
I also am wondering if the answer book's ἡγοῦντο is in the imperfect? If yes, how do I know when to translate "believed" into the imperfect or aorist?
Know your principal parts. They are your friends...

The third principal part of ἡγέομαι is what? ἠγησάμην. That means that the aorist stem has the sigma, which you don't have in ἠγοῦντο. But you have the augmented form plus the secondary (past) tense ending -το, so that has to be imperfect.
On another thread, I had a lot of trouble even reading, let alone writing, δὲ and μέν, so I am not even going to try to write them in a translation. The only question I have is when to use δὲ and when to use ἀλλά?
ἀλλά is often called the "stronger adversative." That means that it is often used to introduce a correction or objection to the previous, or to move the narrative/discourse in a different direction. μέν...δέ, on the other hand (!) tends to introduce contrasts, some of which are communicated in English through context, not through any specific translation. What is the contrast in this sentence? It's between guarding the camp vs. attacking the enemy. Greek makes the context specific through the use of the particles, English (without any underlying Greek) most likely would not.
I also am not following how the author got κρατήσειν. What tense is the word? Is it an aorist? If yes, why is the accent not on the last syllable?
Remember what I said above about "would?" Look again at the form. Think about the principal parts of κρατέω. What stem?
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
The Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.