"... et ne nos inducas in temptationem..."

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Matthaeus
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"... et ne nos inducas in temptationem..."

Post by Matthaeus » Mon Jun 07, 2004 12:15 pm

Salvete omnes!

Without trying in any way to start a theological debate, I have a question concerning the Lord's Prayer. It is said "... et ne nos inducas in temptationem sed libera nos a malo". What kind of imperative is that? Is it normal not to be "...et ne nos induxeris in temptationem..."? Well, I guess it is, since this is the common form of the prayer, but can anyone explain me how come?

Gratias,
Matthaeus

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benissimus
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Re: "... et ne nos inducas in temptationem..."

Post by benissimus » Mon Jun 07, 2004 1:07 pm

Matthaeus wrote:Salvete omnes!

Without trying in any way to start a theological debate, I have a question concerning the Lord's Prayer. It is said "... et ne nos inducas in temptationem sed libera nos a malo". What kind of imperative is that? Is it normal not to be "...et ne nos induxeris in temptationem..."? Well, I guess it is, since this is the common form of the prayer, but can anyone explain me how come?
Ne + present subjunctive second person is often used to express prohibitions. The perfect subjunctive is also used, as you pointed out. In my opinion, it doesn't really need to be distinguished from the other jussive/hortatory/volitive (whatever you want to call them!) subjunctive commands - e.g. inducat! "let him lead us into...", inducamur "let us be led into...".

See Allen & Greenough §439 a, §450
flebile nescio quid queritur lyra, flebile lingua murmurat exanimis, respondent flebile ripae

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