βασιλευόντων

Are you learning Koine Greek, the Greek of the New Testament and most other post-classical Greek texts? Whatever your level, use this forum to discuss all things Koine, Biblical or otherwise, including grammar, textbook talk, difficult passages, and more.
Post Reply
Absolutezero
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Dec 02, 2018 2:04 am

βασιλευόντων

Post by Absolutezero »

I have looked online to find out if this is in the imperitive present as wiktionary says. It is found one time in the NT at 1 tim 6:15. If so how is it to be read in the imperative sense?

User avatar
jeidsath
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 5332
Joined: Mon Dec 30, 2013 2:42 pm
Location: Γαλεήπολις, Οὐισκόνσιν

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by jeidsath »

The 3rd plural imperative finite verb and genitive plural masculine/neuter participle forms are the same in the active present tense. In 1st Timothy, this is the participle.

ὁ βασιλεὺς τῶν βασιλευόντων καὶ κύριος τῶν κυριευόντων

Notice the article directly preceeding βασιλευόντων and κυριευόντων. Also the nomitive singular forms directly preceeding each (not vocative plural).
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”

Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com

Absolutezero
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Dec 02, 2018 2:04 am

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by Absolutezero »

Thanks! That makes more sense.

Absolutezero
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Dec 02, 2018 2:04 am

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by Absolutezero »

I'm studying this to see if the terms describing the "ὁ μακάριος καὶ μόνος δυνάστης" identify this as the father in comparison to the similar statements of Jesus as king of kings and lord of lords at Rev 17:14 and 19:16. I see the definite article is used in 1 Tim 6:15 "ὁ βασιλεὺς"
but not in the other verses in Revelation. Also κράτος along with the other strong expressions in verse 16 seem to lend to this speaking of the father. I may be putting too much emphasis on the definite article....it may only be decided by doctrinal ideas. Just wondering if there are any real defining ways to look at the two verses to identify between the father and the son.

User avatar
jeidsath
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 5332
Joined: Mon Dec 30, 2013 2:42 pm
Location: Γαλεήπολις, Οὐισκόνσιν

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by jeidsath »

You are putting the cart before the horse on that sort of thing if you haven't learned Greek yet.
“One might get one’s Greek from the very lips of Homer and Plato." "In which case they would certainly plough you for the Little-go. The German scholars have improved Greek so much.”

Joel Eidsath -- jeidsath@gmail.com

Absolutezero
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Dec 02, 2018 2:04 am

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by Absolutezero »

I know, I'm working at it each day...sometimes I have a more immediate question than I can answer personally at the moment, however my understanding of the context in the scriptures in english is much stronger. I just am looking to put a finer point on certain thoughts my understanding of the scriptures has already developed.

Absolutezero
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 22
Joined: Sun Dec 02, 2018 2:04 am

Re: βασιλευόντων

Post by Absolutezero »

I can only spend a hour or two each day on my Hardy/Quinn studies. Along with that a few minutes of vocab by means of a biblical flash card program. I'm in unit three...so I have a ways to go. 4 kids and I proudly own my own failing business...lol, takes a lot of my time. But I'm staying at it. I think I forgot to think about agreement of subject and verb in this case and was mislead a bit by wiki...

Post Reply