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In the Greek version of the the Chronicle of Morea
, the form ἐποῖκαν shows up numerous times, for example in section '113.
Αὐτὸν καὶ μόνον πόλεμον ἐποῖκαν οἱ Ρωμαῖοι
εἰς τὸν καιρὸν ποῦ ἐκέρδισαν οἱ Φράγκοι τὸν Μορέαν.
Is there precedent in the Peloponnesian dialects of the classical era for the morphology of ἐποῖκαν? Or is it simply a later analogous development along the lines of ἔδωκαν?
cf. Section '14
τὴν δύναμίν τους τοῦ ἔδωκαν κ᾿ ὑπόσχεσιν τοῦ ἐποῖκαν,
τὸ ὅσον ποιήσῃ νὰ στερχτοῦν, νὰ τὸ ἔχουσιν πληρώνει.
At this stage of the language, or in this dialect region, was there an actual difference in meaning between this tense of ἐποῖκαν and the ἐποίησαν, which is found in say section '180?
κι ἀφότου εὐλογήθησαν κ᾿ ἐποίησαν τὴν χαράν τους,
τὰ κάτεργα τοῦ βασιλέως ἐστράφησαν στὴν Πόλιν.
τί δὲ ἀγαθὸν τῇ πομφόλυγι συνεστώσῃ ἢ κακὸν διαλυθείσῃ;
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ΤΟ ΧΡΟΝΙΚΟΝ ΤΟΥ ΜΟΡΕΩΣ wrote:Αὐτὸν καὶ μόνον πόλεμον ἐποῖκαν οἱ Ρωμαῖοι...
ἐποίησαν + πεποιήκασιν --> ἐποῖκαν
ΤΟ ΧΡΟΝΙΚΟΝ ΤΟΥ ΜΟΡΕΩΣ wrote:οἵτινες ἐδουλεύασιν ἐκεῖ τὸν ἅγιον τάφον...
ἐδούλευσαν + δεδουλεύκασιν --> ἐδουλεύασιν
= ἡ δυσμορφολογία
οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.
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I never did reply to this, but the -k- aorist does turn out to be quite common in Modern Peloponnesian dialect, particularly Mani. Its origins are indeed analogical, and I'd have thought ἔδωκα a more plausible origin than πεποίηκα, because the perfect active died out so much earlier.
Early Modern Greek texts are astonishingly macaronic not only between archaic and vernacular morphology, but also between Modern dialects. (This is something that also occurs in much more recent Modern folk song, and has led Hans Eideneier to postulate a _Dichter-Koine_ for Early Modern Greek, a conventional bardic language that eclectically drew on various dialects.) There's no reason at all to assume a linguistic difference between ἐποῖκαν and ἐποίησαν.