I think there is nothing grammatically wrong with this short composition.οἱ Φαρισαῖοι πάντοτε ἐνέπαιζον τὸν οινοπότην. Ἐγένετο δὲ ἐν μιᾷ τῶν ἡμερῶν ὁ οἰνοπότης συνλαλων ἦν τινι Φαρισαίῳ. ὁ οἰνοπότης εἶπεν τῷ Φαρισαίῳ, “τί καταφρονεῖτε με ?”
Translation: The Pharisees were always mocking the drunkard. It so happened that one day the drunkard was conversing with a certain Pharisee. The drunkard said to the Pharisee, "why do you(pl) despise me";
I've had someone fault me for placing the indefinite pronoun before Φαρισαίῳ. According to them the indefinite pronoun comes after the "noun which it is modifying." But I'm not convinced. I think they may be confusing the fact that the indefinite pronoun does not (or rarely) stand at the beginning of a sentence and/or a clause with the fact that it does not come before the noun it is modifying.
Here are some examples from the GNT which show τινι before the noun:
Matthew 8:12Τί ὑμῖν δοκεῖ; ἐὰν γένηταί τινι ἀνθρώπῳ ἑκατὸν πρόβατα καὶ πλανηθῇ ἓν ἐξ αὐτῶν, οὐχὶ ἀφήσει τὰ ἐνενήκοντα ἐννέα ἐπὶ τὰ ὄρη καὶ πορευθεὶς ζητεῖ τὸ πλανώμενον;
Acts 9:43Ἐγένετο δὲ ἡμέρας ἱκανὰς μεῖναι ἐν Ἰόππῃ παρά τινι Σίμωνι βυρσεῖ.
Luke 8:2λέγων Κριτής τις ἦν ἔν τινι πόλει τὸν Θεὸν μὴ φοβούμενος καὶ ἄνθρωπον μὴ ἐντρεπόμενος.
This one is interesting since in one use the indefinite pronoun comes after the noun (Κριτής τις) but in the same sentence and context with the other use the indefinite pronoun comes before the noun (τινι πόλει).
So I don't think there is any real rule of grammar which prevents the indefinite pronoun from occurring before the noun. I don't even think that we can say that the indefinite pronoun "normally" stands after the noun. There are 16 examples for instance of the use of τινι in the GNT, and the majority (of the relevant examples) have τινι standing before the noun.
Any thoughts ?