ou(= in Luke 3:17

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Bert
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ou(= in Luke 3:17

Post by Bert » Thu Apr 13, 2006 2:05 am

Luke 3:17 reads; οὗτὸ πτύον ?ν τῇ χει?ὶ α?τοῦ διακαθᾶ?αι τὴν ἅλωνα α?τοῦ καὶ συναγαγεῖν το\ν σῖτον εἰς τὴν ἀποθήκην α?τοῦ, τὸ δὲ ἄχυ?ον κατακαύσει πυ?ὶ ἀσβέστῳ.

I am befuddled. What is the purpose of the relative pronoun οὖ?

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Kopio
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Re: ou(= in Luke 3:17

Post by Kopio » Thu Apr 13, 2006 5:56 am



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IreneY
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Post by IreneY » Thu Apr 13, 2006 11:28 am

well, I don't have a Bible around (not at home and I can't seem to access the only site with the texts I know) so I am don't know what is before it and whether it is at the beginning of a new sentence or not , so I am just guessing here but it seems that Kopio's suggestion makes sence.

The relative after all is often used instead of ostis etc

Bert
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Post by Bert » Fri Apr 14, 2006 1:22 am

Thanks to both of you.
I think that when ever I run into this construction again, it will put me dead in my tracks again. Even now, I cannot read this sentence without translating it in my mind.

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Post by Bert » Fri Apr 14, 2006 4:56 pm

I asked the same question on another forum.
There the answer I got was that it refers back to ? ἰσχυ?ότε?ος of verse 16.
That does make sense seeing that the οὖ of verse 16 refers to that as well.

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Kopio
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Post by Kopio » Sat Apr 15, 2006 6:32 am



Bert
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Post by Bert » Sat Apr 15, 2006 12:11 pm

Kopio wrote:Not only does it make more sense....it also comes from a much more reliable sorce! Hofstetter is pretty solid :)
You found my post. :)

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Kopio
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Post by Kopio » Sun Apr 16, 2006 12:26 am

Bert wrote:You found my post. :)
Yes I did....I follow B-Greek quite a bit. From time to time I even ask questions....and even more rarely....I'll chime in when a question is asked and I feel I have something to add (although this has been rarely indeed!) FWIW, you give a perfectly good example, and Albert is simply refusing to concede the point!

Carl Conrad is my hero. I wanna be just like him when I grow up.....really....I mnean it!

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