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2 posts • Page 1 of 1
- Paul Derouda
- Global Moderator
- Posts: 2161
- Joined: Fri Nov 05, 2010 9:39 pm
How should I know, really? But since we're talking about the very beginning of the Iliad, I'd suppose it's the part that's least likely of being corrupted without leaving a trace in the tradition. And although I can't prove it, I'd suppose that "Homer" will have worked on it much more than on the rest of his poem, and for that reason perhaps it might be linguistically different as well? I have no evidence to support this claim, though.