Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

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Kasper
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Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by Kasper » Wed Aug 15, 2012 4:34 am

Dear all

I have a question about the above mentioned lines, which read:

αὐτὰρ ἐπεὶ δὴ σπεῦσε πονησάμενος τὰ ἃ ἔργα,
σὺν δ᾽ ὅ γε δὴ αὖτε δύω μάρψας ὡπλίσσατο δόρπον.

I fail to understand what σὺν is doing in this sentence. Is it that he made this dinner with (i.e. out of) two men? I don't know if I have seen that use if σὺν before...

Thanks in advance.
Kasper

spiphany
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Re: Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by spiphany » Wed Aug 15, 2012 1:57 pm

I would say this is tmesis (prefix of a compound verb separated from main part of the verb), or else an adjectival use of σύν, in either case with a sense of "together, in conjunction." --> he seized two men at once

One big clue that it's not functioning as a normal preposition is that you don't have a noun in the dative here.
IPHIGENIE: Kann uns zum Vaterland die Fremde werden?
ARKAS: Und dir ist fremd das Vaterland geworden.
IPHIGENIE: Das ist's, warum mein blutend Herz nicht heilt.
(Goethe, Iphigenie auf Tauris)

Kasper
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Re: Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by Kasper » Wed Aug 15, 2012 10:58 pm

Ah that makes perfect sense, thank you Spiphany. It was, as you say, the absence of a noun in the dative that prompted my question.

Thanks again,
Kasper

NateD26
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Re: Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by NateD26 » Thu Aug 16, 2012 10:20 am

Kasper wrote:αὐτὰρ ἐπεὶ δὴ σπεῦσε πονησάμενος τὰ ἃ ἔργα,
σὺν δ᾽ ὅ γε δὴ αὖτε δύω μάρψας ὡπλίσσατο δόρπον.
What is the function of ὅ here? Is it the masc. nom. sg. article as subject of verb and aor. part.?
I'd assume so. If it's supposed to be neut. rel. pron. with δόρπον as antecedent, the order
in which I should read the sentence seems convoluted.
Nate.

Kasper
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Re: Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by Kasper » Thu Aug 16, 2012 11:07 pm

Hi Nate

I'd say it's the masc. nom. sg. article, being the subject of σπεῦσε, πονησάμενος, (σὺν)μάρψας ;) and ὡπλίσσατο.

Kasper

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Paul Derouda
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Re: Odyssey book 9 - lines 343-344

Post by Paul Derouda » Mon Aug 20, 2012 1:20 pm

I'd like to add that calling ὅ an article is a bit misleading - in Homeric Greek it's (usually) better just to call it a demonstrative pronoun.

Btw, in LSJ you'll find a reference to the very similar Od. 9.289 under συμμάρπτω.

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