Definite article

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Amadeus
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Definite article

Post by Amadeus » Wed Oct 08, 2008 4:59 pm

Just a quick question: does anyone know what the Greeks call(ed) the definite article? I've read that it used to be a pronoun at first, so that would be an ἀντωνυμία. But what about the "definite article" as such? I've searched the Internet and Diogenes, but no luck.

Thanks!
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Re: Definite article

Post by annis » Wed Oct 08, 2008 5:03 pm


William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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Post by Amadeus » Wed Oct 08, 2008 5:11 pm

Many thanks, Annis! :D

I'm guessing the signification has been taken from the Latin articulus, which also means joint?

χαῖ?ε!
Lisa: Relax?! I can't relax! Nor can I yield, relent, or... Only two synonyms? Oh my God! I'm losing my perspicacity! Aaaaa!

Homer: Well it's always in the last place you look.

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Post by annis » Wed Oct 08, 2008 5:18 pm

Amadeus wrote:I'm guessing the signification has been taken from the Latin articulus, which also means joint?
The Latins followed the Greeks in grammatical terminology, not the other way 'round.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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Amadeus
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Post by Amadeus » Wed Oct 08, 2008 5:21 pm

Oh! :P I always thought the Greek grammarians had borrowed their terminology from the Latin grammarians. Thanks for correcting me on that. You learn something new everyday! :lol:
Lisa: Relax?! I can't relax! Nor can I yield, relent, or... Only two synonyms? Oh my God! I'm losing my perspicacity! Aaaaa!

Homer: Well it's always in the last place you look.

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Post by calvinist » Wed Oct 08, 2008 7:50 pm

Amadeus wrote:Oh! :P I always thought the Greek grammarians had borrowed their terminology from the Latin grammarians. Thanks for correcting me on that. You learn something new everyday! :lol:
The Romans borrowed a lot of things from the Greeks.

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Post by Amadeus » Wed Oct 08, 2008 9:09 pm

calvinist wrote:The Romans borrowed a lot of things from the Greeks.
Yes, I know. The most obvious example is their mythology. I just always thought that when it came to Grammar the Romans had come up with completely new notions. But, again, now I know better. :P
Lisa: Relax?! I can't relax! Nor can I yield, relent, or... Only two synonyms? Oh my God! I'm losing my perspicacity! Aaaaa!

Homer: Well it's always in the last place you look.

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Post by modus.irrealis » Wed Oct 08, 2008 9:45 pm

Well, the Romans probably came up with ablativus ;).

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Post by Swth\r » Wed Oct 08, 2008 10:13 pm

modus.irrealis wrote:Well, the Romans probably came up with ablativus ;).
And with supinum, gerundium and gerundivum. 8)

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Post by annis » Thu Oct 09, 2008 12:38 am

modus.irrealis wrote:Well, the Romans probably came up with ablativus.
And yet the Greek term is clearly of the same formation: ἀπενεκτική (πτῶσις). ;)

This is from Dickey's Ancient Greek Scholarship: A Guide to Finding, Reading and Understanding the Scholia, Commentaries, Lexica and Grammatical Treatises, from Their Beginnings to the Byzantine Period (nice to know Classicists keep alive the tradition of absurdly long book titles).
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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Post by modus.irrealis » Sat Oct 11, 2008 6:12 pm

Was ἀφαι?ετική also used for ablative?

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