?κβαίνω

Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.
Post Reply
Socrates the Cyborg
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 67
Joined: Thu May 25, 2006 2:58 am

?κβαίνω

Post by Socrates the Cyborg » Sat Jan 26, 2008 6:47 pm

In the 2nd chapter of Athenaze, it introduces the verb ?κβαίνει. However, when it is used, a phrase follows that begins with the preposition ?κ. I don't understand this because there is a verb βαίνω, so it seems very uneccessarily redundant to use a verb that includes the preposition and then have to use a prepositional phrase as well. Is this just Athenaze being overly clear or simple, or is this actually standard? Thanks.

annis
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 3399
Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
Location: Madison, WI, USA
Contact:

Post by annis » Sat Jan 26, 2008 6:53 pm

This is not uncommon.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

Arvid
Textkit Member
Posts: 163
Joined: Thu Apr 05, 2007 8:06 am
Location: Seattle WA

Post by Arvid » Sat Jan 26, 2008 10:08 pm

You get the same kind of bracketing in German: "Ich sah durch ihn durch." At least in Greek the prefix stays attached to the verb!
phpbb

Bombichka
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 82
Joined: Fri Mar 18, 2005 8:58 pm

Post by Bombichka » Mon Jan 28, 2008 3:00 pm



Post Reply