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In the 2nd chapter of Athenaze, it introduces the verb ?κβαίνει. However, when it is used, a phrase follows that begins with the preposition ?κ. I don't understand this because there is a verb βαίνω, so it seems very uneccessarily redundant to use a verb that includes the preposition and then have to use a prepositional phrase as well. Is this just Athenaze being overly clear or simple, or is this actually standard? Thanks.