Hi Hugh,
I'm going to stick my neck out and try to answer these, even though I'm a bit of a tyro myself in Greek:
hlawson38 wrote: ↑Wed Aug 28, 2019 8:08 pm
Question: Is it correct that the second τὰς modifies ἡδονας, with which it agrees?
I think that τὰς μετὰ δόξης is a prepositional phrase in the attributive position of τὰς ἠδονάς, so yes, in that sense it modifies τὰς ἠδονἀς. It probably wouldn't be good Greek, but you could write the sentence this way:
θήρευε τὰς μετὰ δόξης ἠδονὰς. Placing the imperative verb between the object and its modifier lends emphasis to both.
hlawson38 wrote: ↑Wed Aug 28, 2019 8:08 pm
Question: Did I correctly read δὸξης as genitive singular?
Yes, in Attic prose μετὰ takes the genitive when the meaning is "with"
hlawson38 wrote: ↑Wed Aug 28, 2019 8:08 pm
Question: What significance has the lack of a definite article agreeing with δὸξης?
Smyth 1128: "The article is very often omitted in phrases containing a preposition"
Bedwere, I believe, is talking about Smyth 1135: "The article may be omitted with some concrete words conveying a general idea". Hugh, I can't tell you which is correct. I like S1128, but S1135 could be just as applicable.