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My apologies for this probably elementary question: why is the imperfect of, say, νοσέω accented as if its ending, ει, was a simple diphthong (ἐνόσει)? Does not the fact that it is a contraction of two syllables (ε + ει), the last of which is long, demand that the accent be on the contracted one (*ἐνοσέει > *ἐνοσεῖ)?
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