disyllabic enclitic

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vir litterarum
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disyllabic enclitic

Post by vir litterarum »

If the last syllable of a disyllabic enclitic is elided, does the preceding syllable receive an acute accent even if the second syllable was not accented?

chad
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Post by chad »

hi, yep, see e.g. aristophanes, ach. 390:

σκοτοδασυπυκνότ?ιχά τιν' Ἄιδος κυνῆν

vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

I am sorry. I phrased that incorrectly. look at these lines:

ἆ?᾽ ἀκούετε
οἵας ἑο?τῆς ἔστ᾽ ἀπόπτυστοι θεοῖς
στέ?γηθ?᾽ ἔχουσαι
Eum. 190-191

Whis is ἔστ᾽ accented? don't disyllabic enclitics lose their accent if their second syllable is elided?

Bert
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Post by Bert »

?στι is written with an accent on the first syllable when: a) It comes at the beginning of a sentence. b) It denotes possibility or existence.
c) It is preceded by ο?κ, εἰ, και/ , ὡς, μή, ἀλλ' or τοῦ'.

vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

But I translated this as the second person plural form of eimi.

"Can't you hear that for feasts for which sort you are abominable to the gods you possess a love?"

how could you translate this with "esti"

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

The translation is more like

"Do you hear what sort of feast it is, for which the gods detest you, that you like/have a preference/delight in? "
(I would preferably split the sentence if I translated in English but I'm trying to keep close to the original and I need more time that I have availabel to decide on how to translate "στέ?γηθ?᾽ ἔχουσαι" )

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Post by spiphany »


IPHIGENIE: Kann uns zum Vaterland die Fremde werden?
ARKAS: Und dir ist fremd das Vaterland geworden.
IPHIGENIE: Das ist's, warum mein blutend Herz nicht heilt.
(Goethe, Iphigenie auf Tauris)

vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

That was what I was thinking, spiphany. All enclitics technically have an accent; they just throw them back to the word they are connected to, so, if the accented syllable is elided, it would make sense that the accent is thrown back to the preceding syllable. I could not find anything on this, though, in any of my references.

Irene, How can you translate ἀπόπτυστοι as a verb when it is an adjective? I cannot figure out how στέ?γηθ?᾽ ἔχουσαι fits into this sentence. What do you think of this translation?

" Can't you hear for what sort of feasts you are abominable to the gods, possessing an affection for them?

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

About the enclitic it works as spiphany described. My translation was more "free" really, going for the meaning rather than a verbatim translation. Yours seem perfect. As I said before, I'd prefer two cut this sentence in translation into two so it will run more smoothly into English.

I'd go with este too

sort of like, do you hear what sort of feast having a delight for you are detested by gods for? (again not a verbatim translation)


So to speak

vir litterarum
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Post by vir litterarum »

Would the στέ?γηθ?᾽ ἔχουσαι merely be a participial phrase modifying the understood subject? I can't seem to fit it in any other way.

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IreneY
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Post by IreneY »

Yeap that's it :) You, having/deriving pleasure (because you derive maybe?) in such feast are despised by Gods.

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