3. Sapientiam amicarum, Ã’ filia mea, semper laudat.
The translation shown on Benissimus' answer key is:
3. My daughter, he always praises his friends’ wisdom.
But my own translation would be more like:
Always praise, my daughter, friends' wisdom.
I can see how Benissimus answer is accurate, but how would you say in Latin my idea of translation here? i.e a father advising his daughter to always praise friend's wisdom.
You may think the question is silly, being a 3rd person singular verb, but in Spanish and Portugues you may use a verb in this person in such a frase ("Alaba siempre, hija mia, la sabiduria de los amigos"). I'm not sure about English and Latin.
Valete!
ch. #3 - PR#3
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 8
- Joined: Sun Jul 27, 2008 12:57 am
- Location: Tenerife, Spain
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 1
- Joined: Mon Sep 29, 2008 6:18 pm
Were it to be "Always praise, my daughter..." the verb would have to be in the imperative since it would be a command. Lauda vs Laudat. Portuguese and Spanish are likely different because they have dropped this feature from their languages. I know in Spanish, addressing someone in the second person can also use the 3rd person ending of verbs for the formal, so that is likely why it is ok. In Latin, since he would be telling his daughter to always praise, it would have to be imperative.
Benjamin Handelman
Latin 1 Student
Pasadena City College
Latin 1 Student
Pasadena City College
-
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 53
- Joined: Mon Sep 01, 2008 10:24 am
- Location: Hispalis Insulaque Gaditana, Baetica
and in Spanish as well, the thing is that imperative 2nd person singular form has merged in shape with the present indicative 3rd person singular form, but they are still different moods.bhandelman wrote:In Latin, since he would be telling his daughter to always praise, it would have to be imperative.
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 722
- Joined: Sat Sep 24, 2005 4:04 am
- Location: Chicago, IL