Here's where you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get translation help and more!
It's purpose is obvious, but does anyone know its origin? My googlings have been in vain. I would guess that it was originally an -ÎµÎ½ or -Î¹Î½ ending that was reconstrued as Îµ/Î¹ +Î½ and then the Î½ was applied to other endings, but that's just a guess.
- Global Moderator
- Posts: 2733
- Joined: Mon May 12, 2003 4:32 am
- Location: Berkeley, California
The origins are uncertain, but Sihler (sec. 240, pp.232-233) says it's analogical. He suspects á¼¡Î¼á¿–Î½, Lesb. á¼„Î¼Î¼Î¹Î½ ~ á¼„Î¼Î¼Î¹ as the model.
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3397
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
Return to Learning Greek
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: daivid, Grochojad, John W. and 57 guests