One general question: I noticed that in Pharr, the word for "fatherland" is listed as [face=SPIonic]pa/trh[/face], where your solutions always have it as though it is [face=SPIonic]patrh/[/face]. For instance, for the genitive you use [face=SPIonic]patrh=j[/face], whereas Pharr uses [face=SPIonic]pa/trhj[/face]. What's up with this? Is Pharr wrong? Are you wrong? Am I missing another funky accentuation rule?
Paul wrote:Hey Lex,
Comparing against my dusty Pharr notes, here's my take on it.
Greek to English
1. OK. Maybe 'of those/these gods' rather than 'of the gods'.
Paul wrote:3. OK. [face=SPIonic]e)/teuxe [/face] is an imperfect (past progressive) and so could also be rendered 'was making'.
Paul wrote:7. I'm not sure about '(are)'. I translate: "Who tells these your evil deeds to Priam?".
Paul wrote:9. 'for Priam' rather than 'of Priam'
Paul wrote:English to Greek
Perhaps use [face=SPIonic]e)fe/rei[/face] (bear, carry, bring) instead of [face=SPIonic]e)/pempe[/face] (send, conduct, escort)
Paul wrote:Also I don't think use of
dative [face=SPIonic]oi)=kw| kalw=| [/face] is correct. If you intend to convey motion toward a place, e.g., "to the home of Priam", then use the accusative either
by itself or with a preposition like [face=SPIonic]e)ij[/face]. The dative, as rendered by english to/for, indicates advantage, benefit, interest - the typical indirect object meanings.
Had the english sentence read "...for the beautiful home of Priam", then use of dative would be correct.
jabloom99 wrote:The literal translation seems to be:
"Who speaks these your evil deeds to Priam?"
I read this as Priam himself speaking to someone (hence σὰ - 'your'), and Priam is asking who the hearer (who had apparently just spoken to Priam) is who has the audacity to speak of the evil deeds to Priam. But this just doesn't seem to make much sense.
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