I'm reading through 1 John 2 and I'm having trouble understanding the last part of the first verse.
καὶ ἐάν τις ἁμαρτῃ παραάκλητον ἔχομεν πρὸς τὸν πατέρα, Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν δίκαιον
The issue I'm having is, how does " Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν " relate to the following adjective "δίκαιον". I'm assuming that Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν is a single substantive and that this is possibly an object - complement, but that doesn't seem to help me understand what John meant when he wrote " Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν δίκαιον". Maybe I'm entirely wrong and its simply an attributive adjective. Also, My english translation has "Jesus Christ the Righteous" how come they use the definite article here? Anyway, I'm stuck, can anyone offer some assistance?