Arist., E.N. 1174a15--17

[Lavrentivs]

οὐ γάρ ἐστιν ἐνδεὴς οὐδενὸς ὃ εἰς ὕστερον γινόμενον τελειώσει αὐτῆς τὸ εἶδος: τοιούτῳ δ᾽ ἔοικε καὶ ἡ ἡδονή.

Why is τοιούτῳ not in fem., corresponding to ἡδονή? -- Is it neu., so the sense is "Pleasure also seems to be something of this sort"?

[John W.]

οὐ γάρ ἐστιν ἐνδεὴς οὐδενὸς ὃ εἰς ὕστερον γινόμενον τελειώσει αὐτῆς τὸ εἶδος: τοιούτῳ δ᾽ ἔοικε καὶ ἡ ἡδονή.

Why is τοιούτῳ not in fem., corresponding to ἡδονή? -- Is it neu., so the sense is "Pleasure also seems to be something of this sort"?

Surely any expectation that it would be feminine would be based not on ἡδονή, but on ὅρασις in the preceding clause (not included in your quote). However, I think your interpretation is correct, and τοιούτῳ δ᾽ ἔοικε means 'looks like a thing of that sort [i.e. of the same sort as sight]'. One not infrequently finds a similar use of the neuter in Thucydides.

Best wishes,

John