λεκτέον δ᾽ ἐπιστήσασι σαφέστερον περὶ αὐτῶν.
Why is this an aor?
aor
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
Re: aor
What do you expect instead of the aorist, and why? (Something is) to be said to understand about these (matters) better. It seems expected here, so I'm not sure how to answer your question without more info.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
-
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 226
- Joined: Wed Oct 13, 2010 6:50 pm
Re: aor
<We> who understand them must speak more clearly about these things.
I expected imperfect, since I assumed that the understanding referred to was an enduring state. Perhaps: we who have understood them?
I expected imperfect, since I assumed that the understanding referred to was an enduring state. Perhaps: we who have understood them?
-
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 3399
- Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
- Location: Madison, WI, USA
- Contact:
Re: aor
Ahh. You are mixing lexical aspect — the inherent meaning of the verb — and grammatical aspect, which is related to how we organize our discourse. I can say, "I was sleeping last night" or "I slept last night." Both sentences describe situations of identical duration. The different aspect choices are about presentation, not (necessarily) actual duration.Lavrentivs wrote:<We> who understand them must speak more clearly about these things.
I expected imperfect, since I assumed that the understanding referred to was an enduring state. Perhaps: we who have understood them?
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
-
- Textkit Fan
- Posts: 226
- Joined: Wed Oct 13, 2010 6:50 pm
Re: aor
So what is the difference between this and the same sentence with imperfect?