Baker wrote:You seem to be taking the adjectives here to be attributive when they are, in fact, predicate adjectives. For all you want to read about adjectives (and more), see Smyth, 1018 - 1062. For the succinct answer, see 813 of White.
Uh... no. To declare them to be in predicate position for sure, we have to be talking about definite nouns, and we're not. These are certainly in the attributive position in both cases, though they are unmarked since there are no articles. If they are anarthrous, then you need to show from context that this is true - and here it isn't.
This is besides the point, anyway. I'm asking whether or not ἀγαθάς in the first instance modifies both πέλτας and μαχαίρας or only the latter, and if ἄγριοι in the second instance modifies both ὄνοι and ἵπποι or only the former. It really is irrelevant if they are predicate or attributive in this question.
Smyth §1040 indicates that the predicate adjective implies a verb. There is no verb implied here. You're certainly off on this. Nothing in the examples I've posted qualifies as predicate adjectives, and I'm still left wondering about the distribution.
But, the situation is most probably like Akemdwr has stated, that the ambiguity exists also in English and is something that will not necessarily be clarified.There were wild donkeys and horses in the plain.
- In this sentence, are the horses considered wild also? How do we know, even in English, that the adjective is distributed (and this is an attributive adjective, for sure) to both nouns?We have good sabres and shields.
- How do we know that the shields are also good?
The ambiguity exists in English, too. So, I shouldn't be surprised or overwhelmed at its existence in Greek.