by Sceptra Tenens » Thu Feb 16, 2012 10:21 pm
It's a contentious point, with one side saying yes and another saying that the accent is invariably moved to the penult.
For what it's worth, a member here made a very convincing case, using the first book of the Aeneid, that it does indeed follow the regular rules. If I had time right now, I'd dig it up...
mihi iussa capessere fas est