Pharr section 223 line 2

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Bert
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Pharr section 223 line 2

Post by Bert »

πάντες )αχαιοὶ λεύσσουσιν ὅτι γέρας )αγαμέμνονος ἔρχεται ἄλλῃ I think this line means something like; "All Achaeans are looking because the prize of Agamemnon is going elsewhere", or; "All Achaeans see that the prize of Agamemnon is going elsewhere".

First question- Is either one of these translations correct?
Second question- ἄλλῃ means elsewhere. Is this a dative form of ἄλλος with an implied noun?
I assume it is and this is why I translated -going elsewhere-. If it had have been ἄλλης, I would probably have made it -coming from elsewhere.[face=Arial][/face]
Last edited by Bert on Sat Dec 06, 2003 9:11 pm, edited 1 time in total.

Skylax
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Post by Skylax »

1. Half en half : "All Achaeans see (are seeing) that the prize of Agamemnon is going elsewhere."

2. I think so. ὁδῷ is implied : "using another way". "From elsewhere" is ἄλλοθεν.

annis
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Re: Pharr section 223 line 2

Post by annis »

Bert wrote:First question- Is either one of these translations correct?
I lean to the second one, "that it's going elsewhere."
Second question- ἄλλῃ means elsewhere. Is this a dative form of ἄλλος with an implied noun?
Yep. This is like the τῇδε matter in the Simonides mentioned last month. There are several feminine pronouns that are used to indicate place (here, there, elsewhere) or manner. So ἄλλῃ can also mean "in another manner."

There's also ἄλλου which has basically the same meaning. I don't think this is actually a genitive though it looks like one.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

Bert
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Post by Bert »

Thank you.
Both of you, Skylax and Annis, are familiar with the content of the Iliad.
I am not. I am resisting the urge to take sneak previews of an English text because it is kind of exciting to read it in Greek without knowing where the story is going.
If I had been familiar with the Iliad, I might have been confident that the second option is the right one.
Without knowing anything about the context, is the first option just as likely or would it have been written differently.

annis
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Post by annis »

Bert wrote:Without knowing anything about the context, is the first option just as likely or would it have been written differently.
I tend to assume that after any sense verb ὅτι most likely means "that". But this is entirely by intuition, and may be unsound.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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