I just started Book II again. And almost immediately stumble on the use of the aorist, where I would expect a present tense:
line 25:
κέκλυτε δὴ νῦν μευ, Ἰθακήσιοι, ὅττι κεν εἴπω·
What does the use of the aorist convey here, in this direct speech? The speaker is not referring to something he already said, he's just starting to talk, so it can't be the 'constative' use Rijksbaron talks about in his 'The syntax and semantics of the Greek verb' (8.3.1).
Can anyone enlighten me?
Homer - Odyssey - Book II
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Re: Homer - Odyssey - Book II
Well, εἴπω is subjunctive here, so it doesn't really have a temporal reference, listen to... whatever I say.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/ — http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
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Re: Homer - Odyssey - Book II
I may have to let go of my stubborn conviction that aorist = temporal then.
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Re: Homer - Odyssey - Book II
ἐν τῇ ὑποτακτικῇ ὁ μὲν ἀόριστός ἐστιν ὁ ἄσημος χρὀνος. ὁ δ’ ἐνεστώς ἔχει χρείαν τῆς ἐξηγήσεως.line 25: κέκλυτε δὴ νῦν μευ, Ἰθακήσιοι, ὅττι κεν εἴπω·
What does the use of the aorist convey here, in this direct speech?
{ In the subjunctive and other non-indicative moods, the aorist is the “unmarked” aspect. It’s the progressive that would need an explanation. }
οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.
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Re: Homer - Odyssey - Book II
Thanks. I know I am very shaky when it comes to the meanings of the moods, aspect and tenses. I will dive into my grammars again to straighten myself out.
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Re: Homer - Odyssey - Book II
It's conveying aspect.
(Occasionally) Working on the following tutorials:
(P)Aristotle, Theophrastus and Peripatetic Greek
Intro Greek Poetry
Latin Historical Prose
(P)Aristotle, Theophrastus and Peripatetic Greek
Intro Greek Poetry
Latin Historical Prose