If it doesn't show up in the LSJ, then it probably does not.
More generally, are we supposed to assume that intransitive verbs lack middles? Are we at least supposed to assume that they lack middles that serve as passives?
That is a more difficult question than you might imagine. I recommend you read this: Active, Middle, and Passive: Understanding Ancient Greek Voice
And I have a related question. If we take a transitive verb and employ one of the passive forms, is that passive form also transitive (in the reverse direction), or is it intransitive--generally speaking of course?
Strictly speaking, a passive is, by definition, intransitive. But in ancient Greek one will look a long time to find any verb form that is solely
and truly "passive" rather than simply taking medio-passive marking, which can take a range of meanings, many transitive.