Textkit Logo

indirect speech in Iliad 1:110-115

Are you reading Homeric Greek or studying Homeric Greek with Pharr's Homeric Greek - A Book For Beginners? Here's where you can meet other Homeric Greek learners. Use this board for all things Homeric Greek.

indirect speech in Iliad 1:110-115

Postby Bert » Sun Nov 30, 2003 1:00 pm

I would consider the sentence from line 110 to the first two words of line 113 indirect speech.
How about from there to the end of line 115?
In other words, is Aggamemnon saying; 'I certainly prefer the girl to my wife..... 'or is it; ' You Calchas, said that I certainly prefer the girl to my wife.....'
Bert
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 1890
Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
Location: Arthur Ontario Canada

Postby Paul » Sun Nov 30, 2003 4:52 pm

Hi Bert,

I would agree that lines 110 through half of 113 constitute a kind of indirect statement: "...prophesying among the Danaans you say that..". But with the parenthesis starting in the second half of 113 we are back to first person narrative. Agamemnon is stating what he himself wants.

Cordially,

Paul
User avatar
Paul
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 701
Joined: Sun Jun 15, 2003 4:47 pm
Location: New York

Postby Bert » Sun Nov 30, 2003 9:31 pm

Paul wrote:Hi Bert,

But with the parenthesis starting in the second half of 113....
Paul

There are no parenthesis in my copy.
Thanks.
Bert
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 1890
Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
Location: Arthur Ontario Canada

Postby Paul » Sun Nov 30, 2003 10:46 pm

Bert wrote:There are no parenthesis in my copy.
Thanks.


Hi Bert,

Sorry, I should have been more explicit. There aren't any parentheses in my copy of Pharr either :D. I meant only a parenthetical remark, an aside. Maybe I used the wrong term to describe the change in Agamemnon's speech.

Cordially,

Paul
User avatar
Paul
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 701
Joined: Sun Jun 15, 2003 4:47 pm
Location: New York

Postby Bert » Mon Dec 01, 2003 11:08 pm

I see.

Is logic the only indication where indirect speech stops and direct speech takes over, or is there some grammatical indication?
Bert
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 1890
Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
Location: Arthur Ontario Canada

Postby annis » Tue Dec 02, 2003 1:43 am

Bert wrote:Is logic the only indication where indirect speech stops and direct speech takes over, or is there some grammatical indication?


Whoo, boy. Indirect discourse is always fun in Greek and Latin. Smyth devotes twelve pages to it (584-596). Sense is often a good hint, but usually changes in construction (inf + accusative) or mood are the better clue. Unfortunately this passage doesn't show that very well.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;
annis
Textkit Zealot
 
Posts: 3397
Joined: Fri Jan 03, 2003 4:55 pm
Location: Madison, WI, USA


Return to Homeric Greek and Pharr's Homeric Greek - A Book For Beginners

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: Qimmik and 11 guests