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It seems that the Septuagint uses Συριστί to refer to the Aramaic language whereas the NT uses Ἑβραϊστὶ to refer to both Aramaic and Hebrew, without distinction. Is there a reason why the NT does not use the word Συριστί?
οὐ γὰρ ἔκρινα τι εἰδέναι ἐν ὑμῖν εἰ μὴ Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν καὶ τοῦτον ἐσταυρωμένον
non enim iudicavi scire me aliquid inter vos nisi Iesum Christum et hunc crucifixum
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