An uncertain quote

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mingshey
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An uncertain quote

Post by mingshey »

Anybody heard of " Kyrie eleison" as a cry for the general marching in triumph? I don't know the exact spelling and followingly, the morphology and meaning.

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klewlis
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Post by klewlis »

The only context in which I've heard that phrase is in early Christian writings and such (and even current liturgies). I don't know whether it predates that or not... though it would seem odd to have polytheistic Greek armies praying to a single "lord" (unless they meant the god of war).

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Re: An uncertain quote

Post by annis »

mingshey wrote:Anybody heard of " Kyrie eleison" as a cry for the general marching in triumph? I don't know the exact spelling and followingly, the morphology and meaning.
This is part of the Catholic mass.

κύριε ἐλέησον lord (vocative) have mercy (aorist imperative).

I'm not entirely sure how this is rendered exactly in the Greek of the Eastern mass, since the usual Latin spelling is as you give it "eleison" which I have trouble working into ἐλεέω (yes, both epsila are correct).
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

mingshey
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Post by mingshey »

klewlis wrote:The only context in which I've heard that phrase is in early Christian writings and such (and even current liturgies). I don't know whether it predates that or not... though it would seem odd to have polytheistic Greek armies praying to a single "lord" (unless they meant the god of war).
Refering one's god as "lord(kyrios)" could be a later usage. I think that it was at first used for the master of a slave, or a person in high social position, kings, etc. Divine beings are thought as "higher" than any person, thus the usage.

----

William, thanks!
I also had trouble looking for the morphological analysis in perseus. I trailed down to leizomai(to capture) since I heard that it was used for a triumphant general, but could not find a suitable form for such a use. The roman spelling was misleading, indeed. :shock: :?

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Post by Emma_85 »

Maybe the roman spelling originates from a time, when the eta was already being pronounced as it is today in modern Greek - like an i.

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Post by annis »

Emma_85 wrote:Maybe the roman spelling originates from a time, when the eta was already being pronounced as it is today in modern Greek - like an i.
D'oh! :oops:

I bet that's it.
William S. Annis — http://www.aoidoi.org/http://www.scholiastae.org/
τίς πατέρ' αἰνήσει εἰ μὴ κακοδαίμονες υἱοί;

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