As I understand it an indirect statement has a verb of saying, thinking etc. that is followed by an infinitive which acts as "that" does in english, and hence introduces a subordinate clause. This clause needs to have a subject in the accusative and an object in the accusative. exempli gratia: G. dixit eam esse bonam = G. said that she was a good person. So, I suppose, first off correct me if I am off the mark here.
The real question centers around this sentence: "cum exposuisset quid peteret, negavisti tantum auxilium posse offerri." The first half of the sentence seems to be a circumstantial cum clause with subjunctive verbs following sequence of tenses and everything is fine.... then I get confused. Is the second half an indirect statement with negavisti being an introductory verb of speech, posse the infinitive, and tantum auxilium the accusative subject? Can offerri be the accusative object? Offerri is a present passive infinitive (I believe, lol), so my real question is this: can infinitives of any tense or voice be "disguised" (i.e., they have no accusative ending visible) accusative objects (or subjects for that matter) of another infinitive verb in an indirect statement?
Ewwww, I wish I could explain my question better; it seems horribly confusing to even me, lol!
Anyway, if anyone gets what I mean please help me out on this one, and feel free to correct any mistakes I am making in my underlying assumptions amabo te! Gratias tibi ago!