pster wrote:OK, I have a new question about this passage. What is going on at the very beginning? Why is ἐστὶν present at all? And why is it singular? ἀφῖκται seems to be the verb. So why do we need ἐστὶν? Can somebody spoon feed this to me?
pster wrote:Update: Hmm. You are probably going to tell me it has to be the plural neut. adj. used as a substantive because that is the only possibility given the πολλὰ. Hmm. OK.
Users browsing this forum: Calgacus and 26 guests