pster wrote:Since the beginning I have not understood how you can take something singular and make it plural.
Neuter plural subjects regularly take 3rd singular verb forms. Unfortunately I'm not NateD26 and so I don't have an instant cite to Smythe, but you must have learned this somewhere in your studies. Granted, it's easy enough to forget.
pster wrote:I'm sure the fault is on my end, but I don't see how you can get "they consist". Can you explain that again?
As I said before, I'm still not entirely clear on how best to translate this clause, hence the [?], but the "consist" part comes from the same citation Nate gave in the LSJ
(a little further along)
pster wrote:I know that it seems like indirect discourse, but why can't we take ἐπίστασθαι just as a substantive?
I was taking (substantive) ἐπίστασθαι as the antecedent of ὅπῃ ἔχει.
Yes, I should make it more indefinite. I would rework my translation a bit to say "in whatever manner you lay claim to".
ἐπίστασθαι is an infinitive, is it not? If it were truly meant as a substantive I'd have expected an articular τό ἐπίστασθαι. Indirect discourse just seems more parsimonious to me, especially since it comes after a verb of thinking/supposing (οἴει). Either way, though, since ὅπῃ is an adverbial relative anyway, it can naturally have an entire clause as it's antecedent. I'm just not sure how to make sense of that interpretation, even if it's a grammatical possibility.
pster wrote:I don't mind taking the genitive absolute to have conditional force. It obviously does. But I was just making the point that it is not the antecedent of the result clause. That is the οὑτωσὶ at the beginning. I think that antecedents of result clauses are (almost) always introduced by οὑτω. Do you disagree with that either in general or in this case?
Sorry, I don't follow. How could the genitive absolute be "the antecedent of the result clause"? It's part of the result clause itself, i.e. subordinate to it. That would a grammatical impossibility, as far as I can tell.
Result clauses aren't always triggered by οὑτω[ς], but that's one of the tell-tale signifiers, yes. Others are adjectives like τοσοῦτος or τηλίκος, or a comparative adjective, or just the sense of the preceding clause alone.
pster wrote:I got the "just now" from LSJ. It was one of the twenty meanings they listed for τυγχάνῃς--"just now be". Since Euthyphro is actually at the courthouse, it seemed the best.
Okay, I didn't notice that definition.