Textkit Logo

Phaedo 57a

Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.

Phaedo 57a

Postby edmondsr » Mon Feb 21, 2011 6:48 pm

Hi All

I am a long time lurker first time poster who finds himself stymied by two words at the beginning of the Phaedo:

τί οὖν δή ἐστιν ἅττα εἶπεν ὁ ἀνὴρ πρὸ τοῦ θανάτου; καὶ πῶς ἐτελεύτα; ἡδέως γὰρ ἂν ἐγὼ ἀκούσαιμι. καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε, οὔτε τις ξένος ἀφῖκται χρόνου συχνοῦ

The problem is "πάνυ τι" I just cannot figure this out. Are the two linked and thus form some sort of idiomatic expression or are they separate? The translation given at Perseus gives "at all" (I think) as a translation but I am having a hard time seeing where this is coming from, at least given the lexicon definition of "altogether/entirely". Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?

Thank you for any help!
Textkit Neophyte
Posts: 9
Joined: Thu Feb 10, 2011 4:41 am

Re: Phaedo 57a

Postby Markos » Mon Feb 21, 2011 11:21 pm

ἔγραψας σύ.

Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?

οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 2910
Joined: Sun Jun 21, 2009 8:07 pm
Location: Colorado

Re: Phaedo 57a

Postby NateD26 » Tue Feb 22, 2011 12:10 pm

edmondsr wrote:καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε

When we have something like that, neither none of = neither anyone of..., οὐ πάνυ τι means literally
not quite, but implying not at all, as Mark said.

LSJ I.3. sts. with litotes, not quite, implying 'not at all'
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 789
Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:14 am

Return to Learning Greek

Who is online

Users browsing this forum: Shenoute and 78 guests