Here's where you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get translation help and more!
I am a long time lurker first time poster who finds himself stymied by two words at the beginning of the Phaedo:
τί οὖν δή ἐστιν ἅττα εἶπεν ὁ ἀνὴρ πρὸ τοῦ θανάτου; καὶ πῶς ἐτελεύτα; ἡδέως γὰρ ἂν ἐγὼ ἀκούσαιμι. καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε, οὔτε τις ξένος ἀφῖκται χρόνου συχνοῦ
The problem is "πάνυ τι" I just cannot figure this out. Are the two linked and thus form some sort of idiomatic expression or are they separate? The translation given at Perseus gives "at all" (I think) as a translation but I am having a hard time seeing where this is coming from, at least given the lexicon definition of "altogether/entirely". Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?
Thank you for any help!
- Textkit Neophyte
- Posts: 9
- Joined: Thu Feb 10, 2011 4:41 am
Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?
οὐ μανθάνω γράφειν, ἀλλὰ γράφω τοῦ μαθεῖν.
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 2108
- Joined: Sun Jun 21, 2009 8:07 pm
- Location: Colorado
edmondsr wrote:καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε
When we have something like that, neither none of = neither anyone of..., οὐ πάνυ τι means literallynot quite
, but implying not at all
, as Mark said.LSJ I.3. sts. with litotes, not quite, implying 'not at all'
- Textkit Zealot
- Posts: 789
- Joined: Tue Aug 11, 2009 10:14 am
Return to Learning Greek
Who is online
Users browsing this forum: ariphron, Google [Bot], Google Feedfetcher and 20 guests