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Phaedo 57a

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Phaedo 57a

Postby edmondsr » Mon Feb 21, 2011 6:48 pm

Hi All

I am a long time lurker first time poster who finds himself stymied by two words at the beginning of the Phaedo:

τί οὖν δή ἐστιν ἅττα εἶπεν ὁ ἀνὴρ πρὸ τοῦ θανάτου; καὶ πῶς ἐτελεύτα; ἡδέως γὰρ ἂν ἐγὼ ἀκούσαιμι. καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε, οὔτε τις ξένος ἀφῖκται χρόνου συχνοῦ

The problem is "πάνυ τι" I just cannot figure this out. Are the two linked and thus form some sort of idiomatic expression or are they separate? The translation given at Perseus gives "at all" (I think) as a translation but I am having a hard time seeing where this is coming from, at least given the lexicon definition of "altogether/entirely". Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?

Thank you for any help!
Ryan
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Re: Phaedo 57a

Postby Markos » Mon Feb 21, 2011 11:21 pm

ἔγραψας σύ.

Does "τι" merely intensify in this case?


ναί.
I am writing in Ancient Greek not because I know Greek well, but because I hope that it will improve my fluency in reading. I got the idea for this from Adrianus over on the Latin forum here at Textkit.
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Re: Phaedo 57a

Postby NateD26 » Tue Feb 22, 2011 12:10 pm

edmondsr wrote:καὶ γὰρ οὔτε [τῶν πολιτῶν] Φλειασίων οὐδεὶς πάνυ τι ἐπιχωριάζει τὰ νῦν Ἀθήναζε

When we have something like that, neither none of = neither anyone of..., οὐ πάνυ τι means literally
not quite, but implying not at all, as Mark said.

LSJ I.3. sts. with litotes, not quite, implying 'not at all'
Nate.
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