ou) in Iliad 1:86

Here you can discuss all things Ancient Greek. Use this board to ask questions about grammar, discuss learning strategies, get help with a difficult passage of Greek, and more.
Post Reply
Bert
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 1889
Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
Location: Arthur Ontario Canada

ou) in Iliad 1:86

Post by Bert »

Iliad 1:86- οὐ μὰ γὰρ )απόλλωνα διίφιλον, ᾧ τε σύ, κάλχαν,

What does οὐ mean in this sentence. It surely can't mean -not- or -no- can it?
Achilles' reply to Calchas would not be very heartening if it was; No, by Jove, I will not help you.

How do I understand this?

Paul
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 708
Joined: Sun Jun 15, 2003 4:47 pm
Location: Maryland
Contact:

Post by Paul »

Hi Bert,

I think it does indeed have negative force. The sense is something like:
"For not, by Apollo....will anyone strike you...".

You might think of the οὔ in line 88 as recalling the οὐ in line 86.

Cordially,

Paul

Bert
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 1889
Joined: Sat May 31, 2003 2:28 am
Location: Arthur Ontario Canada

Post by Bert »

Thanks Paul;
I see it now. The verb that is being negated is "way down" in line 89, ἐποίσει . I took line 86 as referring back to εἴ με σαώσεις of line 83.

One more question about this same line (86). How do we get the -by- from - for by Apollo, the beloved of Zeus...-
Is )απόλλωνα διίφιλον and accusative of ....... (fill in the blank) that gives it this meaning?

Paul
Textkit Zealot
Posts: 708
Joined: Sun Jun 15, 2003 4:47 pm
Location: Maryland
Contact:

Post by Paul »

Hello Bert,

Easiest is to quote from the Intermediate LSJ entry for μά:"a particle used in strong protestations and oaths, followed by the accusative of the deity or thing appealed to;...".

But to avoid leaving it as a kind of 'just so' story, consider that Smyth says this particle/adverb takes the accusative in its character as 'object affected'. I suppose that to swear so was in some way 'to move' the invoked deity.

Cordially,

Paul

Post Reply