978. An appositive in the genitive may follow an adjective equivalent to a genitive: Ἀθηναῖος ( = Ἀθηνῶν) ὤν, πόλεως τῆς μεγίστης being an Athenian, a citizen of the greatest city P. A. 29d.
Why doesn't he say "(=Ἀθηναῖοu)", singular genitive? ὤν is singular. πόλεως is singular genitive. What am I missing?
Thanks in advance.
Smyth Apposition Question
- pster
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question
Because obviously Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" ≠ Ἀθηναίοu "of [an] Athenian".
Rather, Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" = Ἀθηνῶν "of Athens".
Rather, Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" = Ἀθηνῶν "of Athens".
Ex mala malo
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.
- pster
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question
Wow. What a blunder on my part. You know what the problem was? I don't actually own a lexicon. I just use several different word lists and go online for Liddell and Scott But I didn't this time because the adjective was in my word list, and I forgot about the name of the city because the adjective is used substantively for the citizens; and so I figured it was probably some weird apposition and/or attraction thing. Argh. I'm going to abebooks right now! So embarrassing. Thank you very much.
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Re: Smyth Apposition Question
No problem. It is of course exceedingly easy to blunder with Greek.
Ex mala malo
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.
bono malo uesci
quam ex bona malo
malo malo malo.