Smyth Apposition Question

[pster]

978. An appositive in the genitive may follow an adjective equivalent to a genitive: Ἀθηναῖος ( = Ἀθηνῶν) ὤν, πόλεως τῆς μεγίστης being an Athenian, a citizen of the greatest city P. A. 29d.

Why doesn't he say "(=Ἀθηναῖοu)", singular genitive? ὤν is singular. πόλεως is singular genitive. What am I missing?

Thanks in advance.

[Imber Ranae]

Because obviously Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" ≠ Ἀθηναίοu "of [an] Athenian".

Rather, Ἀθηναῖος "Athenian" = Ἀθηνῶν "of Athens".

[pster]

Wow. What a blunder on my part. You know what the problem was? I don't actually own a lexicon. I just use several different word lists and go online for Liddell and Scott But I didn't this time because the adjective was in my word list, and I forgot about the name of the city because the adjective is used substantively for the citizens; and so I figured it was probably some weird apposition and/or attraction thing. Argh. I'm going to abebooks right now! So embarrassing. Thank you very much.

[Imber Ranae]

No problem. It is of course exceedingly easy to blunder with Greek.