Gnaeus Pompēius Magnus - Part two

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phil
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Gnaeus Pompēius Magnus - Part two

Post by phil »

There is one paragraph in the story of Pompeius that is giving me grief. He has just returned to Rome the conquering hero.

Rēbus Asiae compositīs in Italiam versus ad urbem vēnit, nōn ut plērīque timuerant, armātus, sed dīmissō exercitū, et tertium triumphum bīduō dūxit. Insignis fuit multīs novīs inūsitātīsque ōrnāmentīs hīc triumphus ; sed nihil illūstrius vīsum, quam quod tribus triumphīs trēs orbis partēs dēvictae causam praebuerant ; Pompēius enim, quod anteā contigerat nēminī, prīmum ex Africā, iterim ex Eurōpā, tertiō ex Asiā triumpāvit, fēlīx opīniōne hominum futūrus, sī, quem glōriae, eundem vītae fīnem habuisset neque adversam fōrtūnam esset expertus iam senex.
Posteriōre enim tempore ortā inter Pompēium et Caesarem gravī dissentiōne, quod hīc superiōrem, ille parem ferre nōn posset, bellum cīvīle exārsit.

Having arranged matters in Asia, he returned to the city, not armed, as many had feared, but after disbanding his army, and within two days led his third triumph. This triumph was special because of many new and unfamiliar decorations; but nothing seemed more distinguished, than because three conquered regions of the world supplied the reason for three triumphs; in fact Pompeius triumphed over Africa first, secondly Europe, and thirdly Asia, which had not happened to anyone before (which no-one had ever done before). then something about future happiness in the opinion of men if he'd had the same end of life he'd had of glory/fame, and not he might experience bad luck once he got old.
Later, as a major disagreement arose between Pompeius and Caesar, because one (Caesar) couldn't bear superior, and the other (Pompeius) the equal, a civil war broke out.

nihil illūstrius vīsum, quam quod - is 'vīsum' seemed, and 'quam quod' than because, or is 'quam' a relative pronoun agreeing with 'causam'?

fēlīx opīniōne ... senex I think I've got the gist right, but I can't get the grammar.

quod hīc superiōrem, ille parem ferre nōn posset I can't even get the gist of this.

Please help me. It's driving me nuts! Cheers, Phil

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ptolemyauletes
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Re: Gnaeus Pompēius Magnus - Part two

Post by ptolemyauletes »

Phil, i wrote a lengthy reply to you, but goddam textkit signed me out and I lost it all. Not in the mood to type the whole thing out again so here in brief.

but nothing seemed more distinguished than (id) quod = the fact that three conquered regions of the world had etc... Africa Asia and Europe, namely his defeat of the pirates in Africa and Europe, and his defeat of Mithridates and others in Asia, from 67-63 BC.

Men would have considered him lucky if the end of his life had matched his glory, and if he had not suffered adverse fortune as an old man - this is a contrary to fact condition, using subjunctive pluperfects - futurus is actually 'futurus esset'

Finally, repeat the verbs 'ferre non posset', Caesar could not bear anyone superior to him, while Pompey could not bear anyone equal to him. Caesar would have perhaps been happy to be on par with P, but P was always the jealous type who couldn't stand being out of the spotlight.
The only thing we can guarantee when communicating via the internet is that we will be almost completely misunderstood, and likely cause great offence in doing so. Throw in an attempt at humour and you insure a lifelong enemy will be made.

adrianus
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Re: Gnaeus Pompēius Magnus - Part two

Post by adrianus »

As ptolemyauletes says and possibly even more literally as follows:
Ut dicit ptolemyauletes et forsit magis verbatim itá:
...were he to have had the same end of life as such an end of glory and had not at length (as) an old man experienced adverse fortune.
I'm writing in Latin hoping for correction, and not because I'm confident in how I express myself. Latinè scribo ut ab omnibus corrigar, non quod confidenter me exprimam.

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